a 70 year old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot the client also exhibits speech difficulties which condition i
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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

1. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

2. A patient with a history of breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur.

3. Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.

4. What is the primary therapeutic action of tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow. Tamsulosin, a medication commonly prescribed for BPH, works by selectively blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the prostate, causing relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation reduces the constriction in these areas, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms such as hesitancy, urgency, frequency, and weak stream. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin primarily acts by relaxing muscles rather than directly increasing urine flow. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function.

5. A nurse caring for a patient with a diagnosis of lung cancer is aware that the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer. Tobacco smoke contains numerous carcinogens that can damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer. Alcohol consumption (Choice A), poor diet (Choice C), and environmental exposure (Choice D) can contribute to overall health risks, but they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with the development of lung cancer.

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