Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

• A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
• B. Brain tumor
• C. Cerebral infarction
• D. Multiple sclerosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

2. A woman of childbearing age is diagnosed with breast cancer. She is currently taking hormonal contraceptives. What information should the woman be given regarding the hormonal contraceptives?

• A. The hormonal contraceptives do not affect the course of the disease.
• B. The hormonal contraceptives will stimulate uterine bleeding.
• C. The hormonal contraceptives will impair uterine bleeding.
• D. The hormonal contraceptives will stimulate tumor growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormonal contraceptives should be discontinued in women diagnosed with breast cancer because they can potentially stimulate cancer growth. Choice B is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate uterine bleeding. Choice C is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives typically do not impair uterine bleeding. Choice D is incorrect because hormonal contraceptives are not meant to stimulate tumor growth.

3. Which type of lymphocyte recognizes and eliminates virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Macrophages
• C. Natural killer cells
• D. Langerhans cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. Neutrophils (Choice A) are a type of white blood cell involved in fighting infections, mainly through phagocytosis. Macrophages (Choice B) are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and digests cellular debris and pathogens. Langerhans cells (Choice D) are a type of dendritic cell found in the skin and mucosa, primarily involved in antigen presentation.

4. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
• B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
• C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
• D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

5. A patient suffers from dysmenorrhea. Which oral medication will be prescribed that has the ability to provide physiological actions on the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progestins
• C. Naproxen
• D. Ibuprofen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Progestins are prescribed for dysmenorrhea as they help reduce menstrual pain by inhibiting ovulation and decreasing the production of prostaglandins. Estrogen (Choice A) is not typically used alone in dysmenorrhea treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Naproxen (Choice C) and Ibuprofen (Choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea, but they do not directly affect the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function like progestins do.

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