Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?

• A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
• B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
• C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
• D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.

2. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse emphasize during patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, and redness in the legs, and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a significant side effect of tamoxifen. Choice C is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen but are not as critical to address as venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss in premenopausal women.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

4. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

• A. A normal leukocyte count
• B. A high leukocyte count
• C. A low leukocyte count
• D. Another term for leukopenia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

5. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

• A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
• B. Brain tumor
• C. Cerebral infarction
• D. Multiple sclerosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

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