Nursing Elites

1. A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about

• A. self-monitoring of blood glucose
• B. using low doses of regular insulin
• C. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
• D. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.

2. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

3. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering childhood vaccinations
• B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
• C. Routine screening for hypertension
• D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

4. Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy?

• A. No expenses are involved in frivolous lawsuits.
• B. If a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution can sue the nurse.
• C. Liability policies may also cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations.
• D. Only doctors are sued for malpractice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Professional liability insurance is essential for nurses to have as it may cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations. Option A is incorrect as there are expenses involved in frivolous lawsuits. Option B is incorrect because if a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution can sue the nurse. Option D is incorrect as nurses can also be sued for malpractice, not just doctors.

5. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse case manager?

• A. To provide direct patient care
• B. To manage healthcare facilities
• C. To advocate for patient rights
• D. To coordinate long-term care services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'To coordinate long-term care services.' A nurse case manager's primary role is to coordinate and manage long-term care services for patients, ensuring continuity and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect because providing direct patient care is typically the responsibility of nurses, not nurse case managers. Choice B is incorrect as managing healthcare facilities is a role usually fulfilled by healthcare administrators. Choice C is incorrect as advocating for patient rights is important but not the primary role of a nurse case manager.

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