Nursing Elites

1. A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about

• A. self-monitoring of blood glucose
• B. using low doses of regular insulin
• C. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
• D. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.

2. Successful professional nurses benefit from working with mentors. What mutually rewarding outcomes are realized in mentoring relationships? (EXCEPT)

• A. Instilling a sense of accomplishing a meaningful effort
• B. Assuming each other's characteristics
• C. Fostering an interdependent relationship
• D. Promoting self-esteem

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Professional nurses who seek mentoring relationships work with their mentors to gain objective feedback, guidance, and confidence. A mentoring relationship is critical when making job decisions, establishing goals, discussing professional judgment, considering ethical issues, and in determining challenges for growth. Choice B, "Assuming each other's characteristics," is incorrect because mentoring is about learning, guidance, and support to develop one's own professional identity, not about assuming someone else's characteristics. Choices A, C, and D are all beneficial outcomes of mentoring relationships, including instilling a sense of accomplishment, fostering interdependence, and promoting self-esteem, respectively.

3. Which of the following is an important aspect of note-taking?

• A. Not specific and behavior-oriented
• B. Forces the manager to deal with the problem
• C. Records only undesirable events
• D. Failure to give performance feedback

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Forces the manager to deal with the problem.' Note-taking is essential as it compels the manager to address issues, regardless of their size or nature. This process helps in identifying, documenting, and resolving problems effectively. Choice A is incorrect because note-taking should be specific and focused on behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as note-taking should record all events, not just undesirable ones. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the importance of note-taking in addressing problems.

4. Which of the following theories best describes current health care delivery systems?

• A. Open system theory
• B. Closed system theory
• C. Chaos theory
• D. Contingency theory

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The contingency theory best describes the current health care delivery systems. Contingency theory emphasizes that there is no one best way to organize or manage, and the effectiveness of an organization is contingent upon internal and external factors. In healthcare, the delivery systems must often adapt and be flexible in response to various factors like patient needs, technological advancements, and regulatory changes. Open system theory focuses on the interaction between a system and its environment, but it does not capture the dynamic and adaptive nature of current healthcare systems. Closed system theory suggests systems are self-contained and do not interact with the environment, which is not accurate for healthcare systems that constantly interact with patients, providers, and external factors. Chaos theory deals with complex systems and unpredictability, which while relevant to some aspects of healthcare, does not provide a comprehensive framework for understanding healthcare delivery systems.

5. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?

• A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
• B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
• C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
• D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.

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