a 45 year old client is taking methylprednisolone what pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

2. A nurse is providing client education on how to administer insulin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering insulin is to rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy, a common complication of insulin therapy. Injecting into the deltoid muscle (Choice A) is not recommended for insulin injections. Massaging the site after injection (Choice C) is not necessary and can potentially increase the risk of lipodystrophy. Using the same site for each injection (Choice D) can lead to localized tissue damage and absorption irregularities, making it an incorrect choice.

3. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

4. A client is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily for heart failure. Which of the following client reports should concern the nurse as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Visual disturbances such as blurred vision or seeing halos around lights are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite, weight gain, and constipation are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Weight gain could be a sign of worsening heart failure rather than digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and constipation are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are less likely to be related.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the most reliable test for evaluating the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and helps determine if the dosage of warfarin is within the therapeutic range. Choice A, aPTT, is not typically used to monitor the effects of warfarin. Choice C, Serum glucose, and choice D, Bilirubin, are not relevant to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

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