Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production
• C. Fortification of bones
• D. Suppression of candidiasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.4 mL
• C. 0.6 mL
• D. 0.8 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration of the available solution (10 mg/mL). 2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and desired dose.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following client histories is a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

• A. Recent surgery
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Bleeding disorder
• D. Uncontrolled hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Uncontrolled hypertension. Clopidogrel should not be administered to clients with uncontrolled hypertension due to the increased risk of bleeding. Recent surgery, peptic ulcer disease, and bleeding disorders are not absolute contraindications for clopidogrel administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect from the prescribed levothyroxine?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Weight loss
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect of levothyroxine. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing the body with thyroid hormone. Tachycardia, or a fast heart rate, can indicate an overdosage or increased sensitivity to levothyroxine. Bradycardia, slow heart rate, weight loss, and increased appetite are not typically associated with adverse effects of levothyroxine. Bradycardia may actually be a symptom of untreated hypothyroidism.

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