Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production
• C. Fortification of bones
• D. Suppression of candidiasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

2. A nurse is caring for a client newly prescribed doxazosin mesylate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in client education regarding taking the first dose of this medication?

• A. Change positions slowly and lie down if dizziness occurs
• B. There is no need to avoid normal activities
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication
• D. Do not eat green leafy vegetables

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: First-dose orthostatic hypotension can occur with doxazosin. The nurse should advise the client to change positions slowly and lie down if dizziness occurs. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the potential side effect of dizziness. Choice C and D are also incorrect as there is no specific dietary restriction related to doxazosin mesylate.

3. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.

4. A client is receiving chemotherapy and develops stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Apply warm compresses to the mouth
• B. Rinse mouth with alcohol-free mouthwash
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Clean the mouth gently with a soft toothbrush after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply warm compresses to the mouth. Stomatitis is an inflammation of the mucous lining in the mouth and can be a side effect of chemotherapy. Warm compresses can help soothe the affected area and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the mouth. Choice C is also a good intervention as increasing fluid intake can help keep the mouth moist and promote healing. However, the most direct intervention for soothing and healing the affected area is applying warm compresses. Choice D is incorrect because using a firm toothbrush can be too harsh and cause further irritation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

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