Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production
• C. Fortification of bones
• D. Suppression of candidiasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

2. A client is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily for heart failure. Which of the following client reports should concern the nurse as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Weight gain
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Visual disturbances such as blurred vision or seeing halos around lights are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite, weight gain, and constipation are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Weight gain could be a sign of worsening heart failure rather than digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and constipation are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are less likely to be related.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Vomiting
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?

• A. Asthma
• B. Renal failure
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications?

• A. Administer the medication by IV bolus over 2 minutes
• B. Infuse the medication slowly using an IV pump
• C. Add the medication to an IV solution of D5W
• D. Dilute the medication in 5 mL of sterile water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications when administering potassium chloride IV is to infuse the medication slowly using an IV pump. Rapid administration of potassium chloride can lead to complications such as hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not promote the safe administration of potassium chloride. Administering the medication by IV bolus over 2 minutes is too rapid and can cause adverse effects. Adding the medication to an IV solution of D5W or diluting it in sterile water may not control the rate of administration, increasing the risk of complications.

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