a 45 year old client is taking methylprednisolone what pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

2. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

3. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching related to this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to take montelukast once daily at bedtime to maintain therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not typically used for acute asthma management but for chronic treatment. Choice C is incorrect as there are no known interactions between montelukast and dairy products. Choice D is incorrect as it is not safe to double up on doses if the client forgets to take the medication; the missed dose should be skipped and the regular dosing schedule maintained.

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