Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-month-old child with gastroesophageal reflux disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Spitting up
• B. Bilious vomiting
• C. Failure to thrive
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in infants typically presents with symptoms such as spitting up, failure to thrive, excessive crying, and respiratory problems due to aspiration. Bilious vomiting is not a common symptom of GERD in infants and may indicate a different or more severe condition, such as intestinal obstruction or other gastrointestinal issues. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are all expected clinical manifestations of GERD in a 6-month-old child, making option D the correct answer.

2. In teaching parents about appropriate pacifier selection, the nurse should recommend which characteristic?

• A. Easily grasped handle
• B. Detachable shield for cleaning
• C. Soft, pliable material
• D. Ribbon or string to secure to clothing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pacifier with an easily grasped handle is safer and more convenient for the infant to use without the risk of choking hazards that detachable parts might pose.

3. A child who has just had definitive repair of a high rectal malformation is to be discharged. What should the nurse address in the discharge preparation of this family?

• A. Safe administration of daily enemas
• B. Necessity of firm stools to keep suture line clean
• C. Bowel training beginning as soon as the child returns home
• D. Changes in stooling patterns to report to the practitioner

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative care should focus on monitoring changes in stooling patterns, which could indicate complications such as stenosis or obstruction. It is crucial to educate the family on the importance of promptly reporting any changes in stooling patterns to the healthcare provider. Options A and B are not recommended unless specifically ordered by the physician as they can potentially cause harm or discomfort postoperatively. Option C may not be appropriate immediately after surgery and should be guided by the healthcare provider's recommendations.

4. Which disease would require strict isolation of the patient?

• A. Mumps
• B. Chickenpox
• C. Exanthema subitum (roseola)
• D. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chickenpox. Chickenpox is highly infectious and is transmitted through direct contact, droplet spread, and contaminated objects. Due to its high communicability, strict isolation of the patient is necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Mumps is primarily transmitted through direct contact with the infected person's saliva, with peak contagiousness before the onset of swelling. Exanthema subitum (roseola) has an unknown transmission source. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) is contagious before the appearance of symptoms. Therefore, these diseases do not require the same level of strict isolation as chickenpox.

5. When transitioning from intravenous to oral morphine, what would the nurse anticipate regarding the oral dose in comparison to the intravenous dose to achieve equianalgesia?

• A. Same as the intravenous dose
• B. Greater than the intravenous dose
• C. One half of the intravenous dose
• D. One fourth of the intravenous dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When switching from intravenous to oral morphine, a higher oral dose is required to achieve equianalgesia due to significant metabolism from the first-pass effect. Choosing the same oral dose as the intravenous dose would provide less pain relief. Opting for a dose greater than the intravenous dose is necessary to achieve the same analgesic effect. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.

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