Nursing Elites

1. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?

• A. Flushed, dry skin.
• B. Headache and bradycardia.
• C. Dizziness and sweating.
• D. Dyspnea and chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.

2. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Which finding, if noted on assessment of the client, would the nurse report to the physician?

• A. Bloody diarrhea
• B. Hypotension
• C. A hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Rebound tenderness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rebound tenderness is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication that needs to be reported to the physician immediately.

3. Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn’s disease exhibit?

• A. Ankylosing spondylitis
• B. Colon cancer
• C. Malabsorption
• D. Lactase deficiency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit associated disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis, which is an inflammatory condition affecting the spine.

4. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin (Indocin) is a Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, or small intestine. Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Digoxin is an antidysrhythmic. Propranolol (Inderal) is a B- adrenergic blocker. Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders.

5. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

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