Nursing Elites

1. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?

• A. Flushed, dry skin.
• B. Headache and bradycardia.
• C. Dizziness and sweating.
• D. Dyspnea and chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.

2. Which of the following expected outcomes would be most appropriate for a client with peptic ulcer disease? The client will:

• A. verbalize absence of epigastric pain.
• B. accept the need to inject himself with vitamin B12 for the rest of his life.
• C. understand the need to increase his exercise activity.
• D. eliminate stress from his life.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A realistic goal for this client would be to gain relief from epigastric pain. There is no need for vitamin B12 injections because this client has not had any gastric surgery that would lead to vitamin B12 deficiency. Exercise should be modified, not increased, because it can stimulate further production of gastric acid. It is not possible to eliminate stress from a client's life. Instead, the client should be assisted to develop effective coping and problem-solving strategies as necessary.

3. A client with gastric cancer can expect to have surgery for resection. Which of the following should be the nursing management priority for the preoperative client with gastric cancer?

• A. Discharge planning
• B. Correction of nutritional deficits
• C. Prevention of DVT
• D. Instruction regarding radiation treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for preoperative management of a client with gastric cancer is the correction of nutritional deficits.

4. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect to note if the client indeed has appendicitis?

• A. Leukopenia with a shift to the right
• B. Leukocytosis with a shift to the right
• C. Leukocytosis with a shift to the left
• D. Leukopenia with a shift to the left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Laboratory findings do not establish the diagnosis of appendicitis, but often moderate elevation of the white blood cell count (leukocytosis) to 10,000 to 18,000 cells/mm3 occurs with a “shift to the left” (an increased number of immature white blood cells.).

5. A client who has had gastrectomy is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor. The nurse interprets that the client has lost the ability to absorb cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) in the

• A. Stomach.
• B. Small intestine.
• C. Large intestine.
• D. Colon.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intrinsic factor is produced in the stomach but is used to aid in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Vitamin B12 is not absorbed in the large intestine (options 3 and 4).

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