Nursing Elites

1. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to

• A. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved
• B. limit calorie intake until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL
• C. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise
• D. decrease carbohydrate intake until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should advise the patient to monitor her blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. This is important because the patient is experiencing symptoms of an illness (sore throat and runny nose) that can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. By monitoring frequently, any significant rise in blood glucose can be detected early, enabling prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping glargine (Lantus) insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake is not the appropriate immediate action for managing high blood glucose levels. Choice D is also incorrect as adjusting carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

2. What is the primary goal of patient education?

• A. To enhance clinical skills
• B. To ensure patient safety
• C. To empower patients to take control of their health
• D. To improve patient compliance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To empower patients to take control of their health.' Patient education aims to provide individuals with the knowledge and skills necessary to actively participate in managing their health conditions. Choice A, 'To enhance clinical skills,' is incorrect as patient education focuses on empowering patients, not enhancing healthcare providers' skills. Choice B, 'To ensure patient safety,' is incorrect because while patient safety is crucial, the primary goal of patient education is to empower patients. Choice D, 'To improve patient compliance,' is also incorrect as the main aim is to empower patients to make informed decisions and take an active role in their healthcare.

3. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

5. Which of the following leaders would be considered a transformational leader?

• A. The supervisor of a unit who requests staff to work overtime.
• B. The unit secretary who encourages staff to use the proper forms.
• C. A unit manager who reminds a CNA (Certified Nursing Assistant) to work on time management skills.
• D. The Advanced Practice Nurse who encourages a staff nurse to pursue additional education for career advancement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because transformational leaders are known for inspiring and motivating their followers to reach their full potential. They focus on fostering a positive work environment, encouraging growth, and supporting career development. In this scenario, the Advanced Practice Nurse is displaying characteristics of a transformational leader by encouraging a staff nurse to pursue additional education for career advancement. Choices A, B, and C do not align with the traits of a transformational leader as they involve more routine tasks or directives without the inspirational and visionary approach typical of transformational leadership.

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