Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

• A. Changes in cell shape, size, and organization
• B. Presence of unexpected cell types
• C. Ischemic changes in cell sample
• D. Abnormally high numbers of cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

2. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:

• A. paresthesias.
• B. bone pain.
• C. dark urine.
• D. diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark urine is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. When muscle breakdown occurs, myoglobin is released into the bloodstream and filtered by the kidneys, leading to dark urine. Paresthesias (choice A) refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness and are not typically associated with rhabdomyolysis. Bone pain (choice B) is not a prominent symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common complaint in rhabdomyolysis cases and is not directly related to muscle breakdown.

3. What typically causes contact dermatitis?

• A. Fungal infection
• B. Long-term disorder from gout
• C. Contact with a skin allergen
• D. Staphylococcal infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact dermatitis is typically caused by contact with a skin allergen that triggers an allergic reaction. Choice A, fungal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is not caused by fungi. Choice B, long-term disorder from gout, is also incorrect as gout is not typically associated with contact dermatitis. Choice D, Staphylococcal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is primarily an allergic reaction rather than a bacterial infection.

4. A patient is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for anemia. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is imperative with epoetin alfa?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Sodium restriction
• C. Iron supplement
• D. Renal dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron supplement. When a patient is receiving epoetin alfa for anemia, it is imperative to provide iron supplementation as epoetin alfa works by stimulating the production of red blood cells, which require iron for hemoglobin synthesis. Therefore, iron supplementation is crucial to support the increased erythropoiesis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium supplements, sodium restriction, and renal dialysis are not typically indicated as adjunctive therapies with epoetin alfa for anemia.

5. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

• A. Ferritin
• B. Gastric enzymes
• C. Intrinsic factor
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

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