ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:
- A. Changes in cell shape, size, and organization
- B. Presence of unexpected cell types
- C. Ischemic changes in cell sample
- D. Abnormally high numbers of cells
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.
2. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
3. What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
- A. Oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly but not 100% foolproof.
- B. Oral contraceptives may take some time to reach full effectiveness after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions that may reduce contraceptive efficacy. It is crucial for patients to be aware of this to consider additional contraceptive measures when prescribed antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is also incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?
- A. Headaches and visual disturbances
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort
- D. Fatigue and depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.
5. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
- A. Active tuberculosis
- B. Latent tuberculosis
- C. Mycobacterium avium complex
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.
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