Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

• A. Changes in cell shape, size, and organization
• B. Presence of unexpected cell types
• C. Ischemic changes in cell sample
• D. Abnormally high numbers of cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

2. A patient is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. She is prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). What effect will this medication provide in the treatment of ischemic heart disease?

• A. Increase platelets
• B. Decrease platelets
• C. Promote angiogenesis
• D. Prevent thrombus formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication that promotes the growth of white blood cells. In the context of ischemic heart disease, promoting angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels, can improve blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing ischemia and potentially improving cardiac function. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A and B are incorrect because filgrastim does not directly affect platelet levels. Choice D is also incorrect as filgrastim does not prevent thrombus formation.

3. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?

• A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
• B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
• C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
• D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.

4. A patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to ___________ of the remaining liver cells.

• A. Metaplasia
• B. Organ atrophy
• C. Compensatory hyperplasia
• D. Physiologic hyperplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Compensatory hyperplasia is the process by which the remaining cells increase in number to adapt to the reduced size of the liver. In this case, after the removal of a lobe of the liver, the remaining cells undergo compensatory hyperplasia to compensate for the lost tissue. Metaplasia refers to the reversible change of one cell type to another, not an increase in cell number. Organ atrophy is the decrease in organ size due to cell shrinkage or loss, which is opposite to an increase in cell number seen in compensatory hyperplasia. Physiologic hyperplasia is the increase in cell number in response to a normal physiological demand, not specifically due to the removal of a portion of the organ.

5. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

• A. Between 96% and 98%
• B. Approximately 98.5%
• C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
• D. Nearly 100%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

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