ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A 1-year-old child will receive her scheduled MMR vaccination shortly. The nurse should teach the child's parents that she may develop what possible adverse effect related to the administration of this vaccine?
- A. Cough and fever
- B. Pallor and listlessness
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough and fever. After receiving the MMR vaccine, some children may experience mild adverse effects such as a low-grade fever and a mild cough. These symptoms are normal reactions to the vaccine and indicate that the child's immune system is responding appropriately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pallor and listlessness, serum sickness, nausea, and vomiting are not common adverse effects associated with the MMR vaccine in children.
2. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- C. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
- D. Apply the medication once a week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Consistency in timing helps regulate the hormone levels in the body, ensuring the medication's optimal benefit. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sun exposure with this medication. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting the healthcare provider may not be safe. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone acetate is typically taken orally and not applied topically once a week.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?
- A. Muscle atrophy
- B. Facial weakness
- C. Ptosis and diplopia
- D. Increased muscle tone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.
4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?
- A. Liver dysfunction
- B. Kidney dysfunction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.
5. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
- B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
- D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
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