Nursing Elites

1. 12. A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. At which time will it be most important for the nurse to monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia?

• A. 10:00 AM
• B. 12:00 PM
• C. 2:00 PM
• D. 4:00 PM

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After receiving aspart (NovoLog) insulin, which has a rapid onset, it is crucial to monitor the patient for symptoms of hypoglycemia during the peak action time. Typically, the peak action of aspart insulin occurs around 2 hours after administration. Therefore, the nurse should be most vigilant for hypoglycemia symptoms at 10:00 AM. Choice B (12:00 PM) is incorrect as it falls after the expected peak action time. Choices C (2:00 PM) and D (4:00 PM) are also incorrect because the peak action time of aspart insulin typically occurs earlier, around 2 hours post-administration.

2. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

3. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

4. What is the primary focus of health promotion activities?

• A. To manage chronic diseases
• B. To educate patients about their health
• C. To prevent the onset of disease
• D. To identify and treat diseases early

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To prevent the onset of disease.' Health promotion activities aim to prevent diseases before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors, lifestyles, and environments. Choice A, 'To manage chronic diseases,' is incorrect as health promotion focuses on prevention rather than management. Choice B, 'To educate patients about their health,' is important but not the primary focus of health promotion. Choice D, 'To identify and treat diseases early,' is related to early detection and treatment, which is different from the primary goal of health promotion.

5. Which of the following is a skill emotionally intelligent leaders must develop?

• A. Encourage constructive criticism.
• B. Work to complete all assigned tasks on his or her own.
• C. Minimize one�s own emotions, instead of seeking to understand the emotions of others.
• D. Encourage others to work efficiently and independently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encourage constructive criticism.

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