Nursing Elites

1. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patients skin turgor?

• A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
• B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy
• C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging
• D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L
• C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/L
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. A nurse teaches a client who is being discharged home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching?

• A. avoid carrying your grandchild with the arm that has the central catheter.
• B. Be sure to place the arm with the central catheter in a sling during the day
• C. Flush the peripherally inserted central catheter line with normal saline daily.
• D. You can use the arm with the central catheter for most activities of daily living.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

4. The nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral IV catheter into a patient who will require fluids and IV antibiotics. How should the nurse always start the process of insertion?

• A. Leave one hand ungloved to assess the site.
• B. Cleanse the skin with normal saline.
• C. Ask the patient about allergies to latex or iodine.
• D. Remove excessive hair from the selected site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

Similar Questions