which of the following is not one of the major duties of the m6 practical nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.

2. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.

3. The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of GOD). Which nursing action(s) are most appropriate in terms of providing for the dietary needs of this client? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Seventh Day Adventists typically avoid caffeine and pork due to religious dietary restrictions. Providing snacks between meals (choice A) is not specifically related to the dietary needs of this client. While removing coffee from the breakfast tray (choice C) aligns with the client's dietary restrictions, ensuring no pork on the dinner tray (choice D) is redundant as it is already covered in the correct answer. Therefore, choices C and D are not necessary to include as separate options.

4. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, the body lacks essential nutrients due to severe calorie restriction, leading to dryness and brittleness of the hair. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to directly indicate anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories can be a behavioral symptom, thick body hair is not a typical finding associated with anorexia nervosa, and a sore tongue is more commonly related to nutritional deficiencies like vitamin deficiencies rather than anorexia nervosa.

5. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.

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