Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
• B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
• C. Managing ward or unit operations
• D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.

2. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

• A. Protein
• B. Sodium
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease are advised to reduce their fat intake because fats can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and bloating. While protein, sodium, and cholesterol may also impact overall health, reducing fat intake specifically helps manage gallbladder-related symptoms effectively. Protein is important for tissue repair, sodium can affect blood pressure, and cholesterol levels impact heart health, but in the context of gallbladder disease, fat reduction is the most beneficial.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink liquids
• B. Perform active range of motion exercises
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Provide a high-fiber diet to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing active range of motion exercises is the priority intervention for a client on strict bed rest. These exercises help prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy by promoting circulation and maintaining muscle strength. Encouraging liquids, elevating the head of the bed, and providing a high-fiber diet are important interventions but not the priority when compared to preventing serious complications associated with immobility.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.

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