Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
• B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
• C. Managing ward or unit operations
• D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.

2. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

• A. Platelets
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

3. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

5. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

• A. Identify principles of basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition
• B. Perform basic-level pharmacological calculations
• C. Integrate the knowledge of drug therapy into nursing practice
• D. Identify basic principles of field nursing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Phase I typically focuses on foundational knowledge and skills, such as understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition (Choice A), performing basic-level pharmacological calculations (Choice B), and identifying basic principles of field nursing (Choice D). While drug therapy knowledge is important in nursing practice, it is not a specific terminal learning objective for Phase I of this course.

Similar Questions