which of the following is not one of the major duties of the m6 practical nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.

2. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.

3. In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish requirements. In the procurement process, the initial step involves determining and establishing the requirements for the supplies and equipment needed. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire procurement process by outlining the specific needs and specifications. Choice A, 'Keep hand receipts up to date,' is not the first step but rather a later administrative task. Choice C, 'Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels,' comes after establishing requirements. Choice D, 'Properly receive, inspect, and store required items,' is the final step in the procurement process, focusing on the physical receipt and handling of the procured items.

4. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

5. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.

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