Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common side effect of the drug metformin?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Weight gain
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, weight loss. Metformin is commonly associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Metformin works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity, which can lead to weight loss in some individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Weight gain is not a typical side effect of metformin. Drowsiness and hypertension are also not commonly associated with metformin use.

2. What is the most crucial and most difficult management skill required of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Preparing time schedules and task assignment rosters
• B. Inspecting equipment for damage and proper function
• C. Preparing reports and maintaining records
• D. Effectively managing personnel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Effectively managing personnel is indeed the most crucial and difficult management skill required of a practical nurse. This skill involves supervising, motivating, and coordinating the work of other healthcare staff, ensuring optimal patient care. Choices A, B, and C are important tasks but do not necessarily involve the same level of complexity and interpersonal skills required for managing personnel in a healthcare setting.

3. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

5. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

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