Nursing Elites

1. A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid which type of carbohydrate?

• A. Simple carbohydrates
• B. Complex carbohydrates
• C. Fiber-rich carbohydrates
• D. All carbohydrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid simple carbohydrates. Simple carbohydrates can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels due to their quick absorption, which can be challenging to manage for individuals with diabetes. Complex carbohydrates and fiber-rich carbohydrates are generally better choices for individuals with diabetes as they are absorbed more slowly, leading to more stable blood glucose levels. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not necessary or recommended, as carbohydrates are an essential source of energy and nutrients in a balanced diet.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Call a code immediately
• B. Assess the client for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Continue to monitor the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention when a client goes into ventricular tachycardia is to assess for a pulse. This is crucial as the presence or absence of a pulse guides subsequent actions. Initiating chest compressions or calling a code should only be done after confirming the absence of a pulse. Continuing to monitor the client without checking for a pulse delays potentially life-saving interventions.

3. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.

4. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

5. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Stomach
• C. Duodenum
• D. Jejunum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

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