Nursing Elites

1. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

• A. Civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System
• B. DOD tri-service hospitals
• C. Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are equipped to provide specialized care tailored to military personnel. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not always have the necessary expertise and resources to cater specifically to military-related injuries. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, primarily serve veterans and may not always accommodate short-term care for active-duty personnel. Choice D, field hospitals, are usually set up in temporary or emergency situations and are not designed for long-term care, making them less suitable for patients expected to return within 60 days.

2. Interacting with the patient and their family to obtain subjective information is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Assessment. Assessment in nursing involves obtaining subjective information from the patient and their family to gather data about the patient's health status. This step is crucial as it helps identify the patient's needs, strengths, and areas requiring intervention. Choice A, Evaluation, is incorrect as evaluation comes after the implementation of the care plan to determine its effectiveness. Choice B, Planning, is also incorrect as it involves developing a plan of care based on the assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, is the phase where the nursing interventions are carried out based on the established care plan.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

4. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?

• A. Preparation
• B. Training
• C. Mobilization
• D. Selection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' Mobilization is the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department. This involves preparing and organizing medical resources and personnel for deployment during military operations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important aspects in military healthcare, they do not represent the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department as specifically requested in the question.

5. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.

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