ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. Which laboratory data indicate the client’s pancreatitis is improving?
- A. The amylase and lipase serum levels are decreased
- B. The white blood cell count (WBC) is decreased
- C. The conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin levels are decreased
- D. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) serum level is decreased
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are specific markers for pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. Choice B, a decreased white blood cell count (WBC), is more indicative of an improvement in infection rather than pancreatitis. Choices C and D, decreased bilirubin levels and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels respectively, are not specific markers for pancreatitis improvement.
2. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?
- A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
- B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
- C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
- D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.
3. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
- A. Platelets
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
4. What is the most crucial and most difficult management skill required of the M6 practical nurse?
- A. Preparing time schedules and task assignment rosters
- B. Inspecting equipment for damage and proper function
- C. Preparing reports and maintaining records
- D. Effectively managing personnel
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Effectively managing personnel is indeed the most crucial and difficult management skill required of a practical nurse. This skill involves supervising, motivating, and coordinating the work of other healthcare staff, ensuring optimal patient care. Choices A, B, and C are important tasks but do not necessarily involve the same level of complexity and interpersonal skills required for managing personnel in a healthcare setting.
5. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
- A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
- B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
- C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
- D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.
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