the two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug nutrient interactions are
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.

3. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is option B: Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client is displaying symptoms that indicate potential complications, such as internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Option A is incorrect because the client's condition suggests a more urgent need for assessment. Option C is inappropriate as it does not address the seriousness of the client's symptoms. Option D is dangerous and could exacerbate any underlying issue the client may be experiencing.

4. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

5. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The inappropriate action in collecting a midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis is to collect only 5 to 10 ml of urine. Adequate urine volume of 30 to 60 ml is required for accurate testing. Collecting a small amount like 5 to 10 ml may lead to inaccurate results due to insufficient sample size. It is crucial to follow proper collection techniques, such as discarding the first flow of urine, performing perineal care, and collecting an adequate volume, to ensure reliable test results.

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