the practical nurse course is a training program conducted in phases that cover what period of time
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.

2. A client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit after attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, the nurse’s first priority is to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's highest priority should be to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. Given the history of a suicide attempt by taking a large number of acetaminophen tablets, there is a high risk of further self-harm. Placing the client in full restraints without assessing the situation properly may escalate anxiety and hinder therapeutic communication. Trying to communicate with the client in writing could be an option but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Establishing rapport is essential for building trust and therapeutic relationship, but safety concerns must be addressed first in this critical situation.

3. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, the body lacks essential nutrients due to severe calorie restriction, leading to dryness and brittleness of the hair. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to directly indicate anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories can be a behavioral symptom, thick body hair is not a typical finding associated with anorexia nervosa, and a sore tongue is more commonly related to nutritional deficiencies like vitamin deficiencies rather than anorexia nervosa.

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