Nursing Elites

1. Under what circumstances can personal health information be disclosed?

• A. Compliance with legal proceedings
• B. For research purposes in limited circumstances
• C. To a family member or significant other in an emergency
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Personal health information can be disclosed under specific circumstances such as compliance with legal proceedings, for research purposes in limited situations, and to a family member or significant other in emergencies. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because it encompasses all the situations where disclosure of personal health information is permissible. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they represent individual scenarios where disclosure can occur, but the comprehensive answer is that personal health information can be disclosed in all these situations, not just one or two.

2. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:

• A. Novolin L insulin
• B. Novolin R insulin
• C. Novolin N insulin
• D. Novolin U insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin). Regular insulin is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis due to its rapid onset of action. Novolin L (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice A), Novolin N (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice C), and Novolin U (Ultra-Long-acting insulin) (choice D) are not suitable for continuous infusion in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

5. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?

• A. Chewing tobacco
• B. Low-fat diet
• C. Chronic alcoholism
• D. Exposure to industrial chemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

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