Nursing Elites

1. During the assessment of an adolescent who collapsed during Olympic figure skating training and was diagnosed with severe malnutrition due to anorexia nervosa, which client statement supports the use of a family-based approach?

• A. I eat just as much as everyone else on the team
• B. I'm tired of fighting with my parents about eating
• C. I just didn't drink enough water during practice
• D. I have to practice until my skating routine is perfect

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement 'I'm tired of fighting with my parents about eating' indicates a struggle related to food and parental conflicts, suggesting family dynamics play a role in the client's eating disorder. In cases of anorexia nervosa in adolescents, involving the family in the treatment process through a family-based approach has shown to be effective. This approach recognizes the influence of family interactions on the development and maintenance of eating disorders, aiming to improve communication, support, and understanding within the family unit to facilitate recovery.

2. Which of the following therapies is considered the most effective for treating phobias?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as the most effective treatment for phobias. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with their phobias, leading to long-lasting improvement and symptom reduction. Unlike psychoanalysis, which focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts, CBT provides practical strategies to address phobias directly. Medication management may be used in conjunction with therapy but is not typically considered a standalone treatment for phobias. Group therapy can be beneficial for some individuals, but CBT is specifically tailored to target and alleviate phobia symptoms effectively.

3. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

4. After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, 'You are incompetent!' Which is the nurse's best response?

• A. Do you believe that I was the cause of your blood test being canceled?
• B. I see that you are upset, but I feel uncomfortable when you swear at me.
• C. Have you ever thought about ways to express anger appropriately?
• D. I'll give you some space. Let me know if you need anything.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate response for the nurse is option B. By acknowledging the client's feelings and setting a boundary regarding inappropriate behavior, the nurse addresses the situation with empathy. This response demonstrates understanding of the client's emotions while also maintaining a professional standard by expressing discomfort with swearing. Option A could come off as defensive and may escalate the situation. Option C may be perceived as condescending and not immediately address the client's behavior. Option D, although offering space, does not directly address the inappropriate behavior and misses an opportunity to set a professional boundary.

5. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Sertraline
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

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