Nursing Elites

1. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?

• A. Bone marrow transplant
• B. Splenectomy
• C. Frequent blood transfusions
• D. Liver biopsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis as it helps prevent hemolysis and improve anemia. Removing the spleen reduces the destruction of the abnormal red blood cells. Choice A, Bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice C, Frequent blood transfusions, may be used to manage anemia in some cases but is not the primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice D, Liver biopsy, is not a treatment for hereditary spherocytosis; it is a procedure used to diagnose liver conditions, not related to this hematologic disorder.

2. When does the nurse act as a client advocate?

• A. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing
• B. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client
• C. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Acting as a client advocate involves various actions to protect the client's rights and well-being. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client facilitates communication and addresses the client's needs. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only safeguards the client's confidentiality and privacy. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are examples of a nurse acting as a client advocate, making D the correct answer.

3. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

5. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

• A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
• B. Erb’s point
• C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
• D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.

Similar Questions