Nursing Elites

1. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Hepatic encephalopathy
• C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
• D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.

2. What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?

• A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
• B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
• C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
• D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis.' Insulinomas cause hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production, leading to symptoms such as nervousness (from the sympathetic response to hypoglycemia), jitteriness, and diaphoresis (sweating). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (Choice B) are not typical signs of insulinoma. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (Choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinoma. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (Choice D) are more indicative of hyperthyroidism or a hypermetabolic state, rather than an insulinoma presentation.

3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

4. The nurse understands that which characteristics are of anthrax? Select all that apply.

• A. Cutaneous lesions become a black eschar and flu-like symptoms are a sign of pulmonary anthrax
• B. Cutaneous lesions become a black eschar
• C. Gastrointestinal anthrax causes blood anthrax
• D. Flu-like symptoms are a sign of pulmonary anthrax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristics of anthrax are that cutaneous anthrax causes black eschar lesions, and flu-like symptoms are typical of pulmonary anthrax. Choice B is incorrect because it only includes information about cutaneous anthrax lesions but doesn't cover the flu-like symptoms of pulmonary anthrax. Choice C is incorrect as gastrointestinal anthrax does not cause 'blood anthrax,' it causes symptoms like severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. Choice D is incorrect as flu-like symptoms are associated with pulmonary anthrax, not with gastrointestinal anthrax.

5. Which corps-level hospital is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is GH (General Hospital), a 296-bed facility that offers care for all categories of patients. FSB, CSH, and FH do not typically refer to hospitals at the corps level and are not specifically known for providing comprehensive care.

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