ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Hepatic encephalopathy
- C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
- D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.
2. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?
- A. Specimen is collected after meals
- B. The nurse puts the Clinitest tablet into a test tube
- C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
- D. If the color becomes orange or red, it is considered
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect as the specimen should be collected before meals for accurate results. Choice B is incorrect as it should be the Clinitest tablet, not the clingiest tablet. Choice D is incorrect as the statement is incomplete and lacks clarity.
3. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.
4. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
- B. Buildup of urea in the body
- C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who takes an antidepressant and oral contraceptives. Which herbal supplement should the healthcare provider educate the client about due to a drug-herb interaction?
- A. Iron supplement
- B. Garlic
- C. Green tea
- D. St. John’s Wort
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, St. John’s Wort. St. John’s Wort can interact with antidepressants and oral contraceptives, potentially reducing their efficacy. Iron supplement, garlic, and green tea are not typically known to have significant interactions with antidepressants or oral contraceptives, making them less likely to impact the client's treatment.
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