Nursing Elites

1. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Hepatic encephalopathy
• C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
• D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.

2. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with prolonged antibiotic use?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin B6
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin K. Prolonged antibiotic use can disrupt the gut flora, leading to Vitamin K deficiency and an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin A deficiency is not commonly associated with antibiotic use. Similarly, Vitamin B6 and Vitamin C deficiencies are not typically linked to prolonged antibiotic use.

3. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

• A. Protein
• B. Sodium
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease are advised to reduce their fat intake because fats can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and bloating. While protein, sodium, and cholesterol may also impact overall health, reducing fat intake specifically helps manage gallbladder-related symptoms effectively. Protein is important for tissue repair, sodium can affect blood pressure, and cholesterol levels impact heart health, but in the context of gallbladder disease, fat reduction is the most beneficial.

4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

5. A client is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Dizziness' and 'Headache'. ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are known to cause these common side effects due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Choice A, 'Constipation', is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While constipation can be a side effect of some medications, it is not typically seen with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect choices.

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