Nursing Elites

1. A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about intimate partner violence. Which response by the students indicates no further teaching is needed?

• A. Alaska Native women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
• B. Caucasian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.
• C. African American women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
• D. Asian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alaska Native women do report the highest rate of intimate partner violence. This statistic is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of to provide culturally sensitive care and interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect statements. While it is essential to understand disparities in intimate partner violence rates among different populations, in this context, the focus is on recognizing the accurate information provided about Alaska Native women.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• B. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.
• C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should not stop taking buspirone (Buspar) abruptly as it may cause withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is correct as buspirone can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so avoiding driving is important. Choice C is also accurate because buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full effectiveness. Choice D is valid as buspirone is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:

• A. Positive symptoms
• B. Negative symptoms
• C. Cognitive symptoms
• D. Mood symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.

5. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?

• A. Exposure therapy
• B. Cognitive restructuring
• C. Medication management
• D. Psychoeducation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.

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