Nursing Elites

1. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of sublimation?

• A. A woman channels her energy into a new hobby after a breakup.
• B. A man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine.
• C. A student focuses on studying to avoid thinking about a recent argument.
• D. An athlete channels competitive impulses into a successful sports career.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities. In this scenario, the man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine, which is a positive and constructive way of managing his emotions. Choices A, C, and D do not fully align with sublimation as they do not involve redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable outlets, unlike the man's action in choice B.

2. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the patient to ignore the voices.
• B. Engage the patient in a reality-based activity.
• C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce stimulation.
• D. Ask the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging the patient in a reality-based activity is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with schizophrenia experiencing hallucinations. This intervention can help distract the patient from the hallucinations and reorient them to the present, promoting a connection with reality and potentially reducing distress associated with the hallucinations. Choice A, encouraging the patient to ignore the voices, may not be effective as it can be challenging for the patient to dismiss the hallucinations. Choice C, providing a quiet environment, is helpful but may not directly address the hallucinations. Choice D, asking the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail, may increase the patient's focus on the hallucinations, potentially worsening distress.

3. When a patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine, what is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Suicidal ideation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating fluoxetine therapy in a patient with major depressive disorder, monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial due to the increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behaviors that can occur, especially in the initial phase of treatment. This close monitoring is essential to ensure patient safety and intervene promptly if such symptoms arise. Weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are potential side effects of some medications used to treat depression, but suicidal ideation is the most critical and immediate side effect to monitor for when starting fluoxetine.

4. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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