Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Standing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.

2. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can stain your contacts.
• B. This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.
• C. This medication can absorb into your contacts.
• D. This medication can slow your heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove their contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid potential absorption of the medication by the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine's main concern with contact lenses is its absorption into the lenses rather than staining contacts, causing pupil constriction, or affecting heart rate.

3. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove it each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time can lead to tolerance development. Applying the patch to a different site each day is not necessary, as long as the area is rotated to prevent skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair is not a critical instruction for the Nitroglycerin patch.

4. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.

5. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Sodium level
• C. Hemoglobin A1C
• D. BUN

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels when taking Furosemide because the medication can lead to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of Furosemide, a loop diuretic, due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Therefore, choices B (Sodium level), C (Hemoglobin A1C), and D (BUN) are incorrect as they are not directly influenced by Furosemide therapy for heart failure.

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