Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Standing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider.
• C. Use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the healthcare professional should include when educating a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious side effect of warfarin. Prompt reporting of bleeding symptoms is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding foods high in vitamin K may be important when taking warfarin due to its interaction with the medication, it is not the priority over reporting signs of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor are general precautions for individuals on anticoagulants but are not as critical as reporting bleeding symptoms.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.

4. When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should be considered? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Infants have a more rapid gastric emptying time.
• B. Infants have immature liver function.
• C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed.
• D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, the pharmacokinetic principle to consider is that infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. This requires medications metabolized by the liver to be administered in smaller dosages. While infants do have a more rapid gastric emptying time, immature liver function is a more critical pharmacokinetic consideration in this context. Additionally, although infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, this relates more to pharmacodynamic effects rather than pharmacokinetic principles. The statement about infants having an increased ability to absorb topical medications is not directly related to pharmacokinetic principles, making choice B the correct answer.

5. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.

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