Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Apples
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Clients prescribed spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium. Increased potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of spironolactone.

2. A client has difficulty swallowing medications and is prescribed enteric-coated aspirin PO once daily. The client asks if the medication can be crushed to make it easier to swallow. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

• A. Crushing the medication might cause you to have a stomachache or indigestion.
• B. Crushing the medication is a good idea, and I can mix it in some ice cream for you.
• C. Crushing the medication would release all the medication at once, rather than over time.
• D. Crushing is unsafe, as it destroys the ingredients in the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crushing an enteric-coated medication can cause it to break down in the stomach instead of the intestines, potentially leading to gastrointestinal distress like stomachache or indigestion. It is important to take enteric-coated medications whole to ensure they are properly absorbed in the intestines and to prevent irritation to the stomach.

3. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be provided?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor your blood glucose levels.
• C. Expect a rapid heart rate.
• D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take the medication with food. Labetalol should be taken with food to increase absorption and reduce the risk of orthostatic hypotension. Taking it with food helps in better absorption and minimizes the potential drop in blood pressure when standing up, which can occur with this medication. Choice B is incorrect as Labetalol is not primarily associated with affecting blood glucose levels. Choice C is incorrect as Labetalol is a beta-blocker that would actually lower heart rate, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because increasing intake of high-sodium foods could counteract the antihypertensive effects of Labetalol.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

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