Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

2. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum glucose. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring serum glucose levels is essential to assess for elevated blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Prednisone does not directly affect potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.

3. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Consume foods rich in potassium.
• C. Take this medication with a meal.
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to dehydration due to increased urination. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is essential to educate the client to monitor these signs and seek medical attention if they occur. Choice A is incorrect because Hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disruption of sleep due to increased urination during the night. Choice B is incorrect because while Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to potassium loss, consuming foods rich in potassium is not a specific instruction related to this medication. Choice C is incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide with a meal is not a specific requirement for its administration.

4. A client is prescribed Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
• C. Swallow the tablets whole.
• D. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to three doses for chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a chest pain episode, the client should take one nitroglycerin tablet sublingually every 5 minutes up to a total of three doses. If chest pain persists after three doses, emergency medical attention should be sought. Nitroglycerin should not be swallowed but allowed to dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption. Storing the medication in a cool, dry place helps maintain its effectiveness.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

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