ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.
2. Which of the following foods is a good source of protein?
- A. Chicken
- B. Tofu
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is indeed a good source of protein, providing a significant amount per serving. While chicken and tofu are also high in protein, cheddar cheese can be a beneficial source, especially for individuals looking for non-meat options. Almonds, while nutritious, are not as high in protein compared to the other options listed.
3. Which of the following is not a common causative agent of bacterial meningitis?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Neisseria meningitidis
- C. Staphylococcus aureus
- D. Haemophilus influenzae
Correct answer: C: Staphylococcus aureus
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is not a typical causative agent of bacterial meningitis. This bacterium is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections rather than meningitis.
4. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Self-esteem disturbance
- B. Impaired urinary elimination
- C. Impaired skin integrity
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D: Risk for infection
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Risk for infection.' An indwelling urinary catheter poses a significant risk for infection due to its invasive nature and the increased susceptibility to urinary tract infections. While 'B: Impaired urinary elimination' and 'C: Impaired skin integrity' may also be concerns for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter, the immediate risk of infection is the priority. 'A: Self-esteem disturbance' is not typically a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter because the focus is primarily on infection prevention and management to ensure patient safety and well-being.
5. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.
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