Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

2. What is the first type of medication prescribed to prevent angina pain for a client?

• A. Beta blockers
• B. Alpha blockers
• C. Calcium channel blockers
• D. Organic nitrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta blockers are the first-line medication prescribed to prevent angina pain. They work by reducing the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing angina attacks by improving blood flow to the heart. Alpha blockers, calcium channel blockers, and organic nitrates are also used in angina treatment but are typically considered after beta blockers.

3. A client has been prescribed a new oral hypoglycemic agent for diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication with my evening snack.
• B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels before each meal.
• C. I will take this medication as soon as I wake up.
• D. I will follow my exercise plan as usual.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking an oral hypoglycemic agent with an evening snack may lead to hypoglycemia during the night. It is important to follow the prescribed timing for medication administration to maintain blood sugar levels within the target range. The medication is usually taken before meals to help control postprandial blood glucose levels effectively. Choice B is correct as monitoring blood sugar levels before each meal is a good practice. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication upon waking up may align with certain oral hypoglycemic agents' dosing schedules. Choice D is also correct as regular exercise is an important part of managing diabetes.

4. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Thrombocytopenia
• D. Leukopenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.

5. What is one therapeutic use for nitroglycerin?

• A. Relief or prevention of anginal attacks
• B. Diuresis and mobilization of excess fluid
• C. Decreasing nausea and vomiting
• D. Relief of anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is primarily used for the relief or prevention of anginal attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, thereby relieving chest pain caused by angina. The medication is not indicated for diuresis, antiemetic effects, or anxiety relief. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the therapeutic use of nitroglycerin.

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