ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?
- A. Within 30 minutes/unit
- B. Within 60 minutes/unit
- C. Within 2 hours/unit
- D. Within 4 hours/unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.
2. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
- A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
- B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
- C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
- D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.
3. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
- B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. This recommendation helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with this medication. Food can help minimize nausea and other stomach-related issues that may occur when taking Levodopa/Carbidopa. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of protein-rich foods is not necessary with this medication. Muscle twitching is not an expected side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Anticipating relief of manifestations in 24 hours is unrealistic as it may take days to weeks for the full therapeutic effect of the medication to be achieved.
4. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Extremity paresthesias
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Severe constipation
- D. Complex partial seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.
5. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
- B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
- C. Expect a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid foods high in fiber.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.
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