Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

2. What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?

• A. Area support medical battalions
• B. TOE units
• C. Ambulance exchange points
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are set up when threats to air resources make it impossible to evacuate by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred from ambulances to aircraft for further evacuation. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) are not directly related to this scenario, as they provide medical support to larger areas. TOE units (Choice B) refer to tables of organization and equipment, not specific to this situation. Field hospitals (Choice D) are more permanent facilities for treating patients and are not specifically for transferring patients under threats to air resources.

3. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a nursing plan of care?

• A. It contains short-term goals
• B. It is developed by the patient's physician
• C. It must be continually evaluated
• D. It contains long-range goals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nursing plan of care is developed by the nursing staff, not the patient's physician. Choice A is correct as nursing plans of care typically include short-term goals to address immediate patient needs. Choice C is correct because nursing plans of care must be continually evaluated and adjusted based on the patient's progress. Choice D is incorrect as nursing plans of care can include both short-term and long-range goals to address the patient's overall health and well-being.

4. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?

• A. At the client's back
• B. At the client's right side
• C. At the client's left side
• D. In front of a sitting client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position himself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Being in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because positioning at the client's back or sides would make it challenging to adequately palpate the neck area and assess for lymphadenopathy.

5. In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?

• A. Keep hand receipts up to date
• B. Establish requirements
• C. Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels
• D. Properly receive, inspect, and store required items

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the procurement process, the FIRST step is to establish requirements. This step involves identifying and defining the needs for supplies and equipment before moving forward with the procurement process. Keeping hand receipts up to date (Choice A) is a task related to tracking and managing inventory but comes after the requirements have been established. Requisitioning supplies and equipment (Choice C) and receiving, inspecting, and storing items (Choice D) are subsequent steps in the procurement process that follow after the requirements have been determined.

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