Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

2. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

• A. The pancreas
• B. The adrenal cortex
• C. The adrenal medulla
• D. The anterior pituitary gland

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Norepinephrine is indeed secreted by the adrenal medulla, making choice C the correct answer. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response, helping to prepare the body to react to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as norepinephrine is not secreted by the pancreas, adrenal cortex, or the anterior pituitary gland.

3. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

4. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

• A. “I will brush my teeth with a soft-bristle toothbrush.”
• B. “I will rinse my mouth with Listerine mouthwash.”
• C. “I will swish my antifungal solution and then swallow.”
• D. “I will avoid spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate the ulcers and delay healing. Choices A, B, and C could potentially worsen the condition. Brushing with a soft-bristle toothbrush may cause discomfort, rinsing with Listerine mouthwash can be too harsh on the ulcers, and swallowing antifungal solution is not recommended unless specified by a healthcare provider.

5. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?

• A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
• B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
• C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
• D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant amounts of heme iron or other iron-rich foods that would be beneficial in managing iron deficiency anemia. Cheese pizza, scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast, corn flakes, and whole wheat toast do not provide the necessary heme iron needed to address the client's condition.

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