ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?
- A. Crying
- B. Self-mutilation
- C. Immobile posturing
- D. Repetitious activities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborns. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that the client's partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
- B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
- C. Of course I will heat that up for you.
- D. The hospital food is more nutritious.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Respecting cultural dietary preferences enhances patient-centered care.
4. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention?
- A. Vaccination
- B. Screening for cancer
- C. Physical therapy
- D. Health education
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention aims to manage and improve the quality of life of individuals already diagnosed with a disease. Physical therapy, which focuses on rehabilitation and restoring function after an injury or illness, is a prime example of tertiary prevention. It helps individuals regain mobility and independence, thereby reducing the impact of the disease and preventing further complications.
5. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Absolute neutrophil count
- C. Platelet count
- D. Total white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the platelet count to determine the effectiveness of Oprelvekin. The expected outcome for this medication is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Oprelvekin is a medication used to stimulate platelet production, making platelet count a crucial parameter to assess its effectiveness. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not specifically related to the action or effectiveness of Oprelvekin.