Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

2. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

3. A client takes an antidepressant and oral contraceptives. Which herbal supplement should the nurse educate the client about as a potential drug-herb interaction?

• A. Iron supplement
• B. Garlic
• C. Green tea
• D. St. John’s Wort

Correct answer: D

Rationale: St. John’s Wort is the correct answer because it can interact with antidepressants and oral contraceptives, potentially affecting their efficacy. Iron supplement, garlic, and green tea do not typically interact with antidepressants or oral contraceptives to the same extent as St. John’s Wort.

4. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

• A. The nurse repeats the information as indicated by the client’s questions
• B. The nurse teaches all the information needed by the client in one session
• C. The nurse uses a video to explain with medical terms to the client
• D. The nurse waits until the client asks questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.

5. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
• B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
• C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
• D. 10-year-old who is nauseated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.

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