ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects on the heart. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia and take appropriate actions if necessary. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected finding with Diltiazem use. Hypertension (Choice C) is actually a condition that Diltiazem is used to treat. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of Diltiazem.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medical history and notes that the client has a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Ringing in the ears
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision, along with nausea, vomiting, and confusion, are common manifestations of Digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances are important to recognize as they can indicate the need for immediate medical attention and potential adjustment of Digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin rather than a sign of toxicity. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is also a potential side effect of Digoxin but is less specific to toxicity compared to yellow-tinged vision.
3. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?
- A. The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered as needed.
- B. The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment.
- C. The client's dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
- D. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be initiated at a low dose and titrated gradually over several weeks to achieve therapeutic levels. This approach helps to minimize the risk of adverse effects, particularly in older adult clients who may be more sensitive to medication changes. Starting at a low dose allows for close monitoring of the client's response and adjustment of the dosage as needed to optimize treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose can increase the risk of adverse effects and is not the recommended approach. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the initial dosage throughout the treatment may not achieve optimal therapeutic levels. Choice C is incorrect because adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not the standard practice for initiating Levothyroxine treatment.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?
- A. 1-year-old who has no health problems
- B. 17-year-old who has a hypersensitivity to Penicillin
- C. 25-year-old who is pregnant
- D. 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.
5. A client has a new prescription for Cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach for best results.
- C. Take this medication only when experiencing muscle pain.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed Cyclobenzaprine is to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, so it is important to advise clients to avoid activities that require alertness and coordination to prevent accidents or injuries. Choice B is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing muscle pain. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Cyclobenzaprine.
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