Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects on the heart. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia and take appropriate actions if necessary. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected finding with Diltiazem use. Hypertension (Choice C) is actually a condition that Diltiazem is used to treat. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of Diltiazem.

2. When administering an Antiulcer Agent, you should be more cautious when administering it to:

• A. A healthy 27-year-old patient
• B. Patient with renal failure
• C. Elderly patients
• D. Choices B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering an antiulcer agent, caution is warranted in patients with renal failure due to the potential impact on drug metabolism and excretion. Additionally, elderly patients may be more susceptible to adverse effects from antiulcer agents due to age-related physiological changes. Therefore, it is important to be more cautious when administering antiulcer agents to patients with renal failure and elderly patients. Choice A, a healthy 27-year-old patient, would typically not require as much caution compared to patients with renal failure or elderly patients when administering antiulcer agents. Therefore, choices B & C are the correct options for increased caution.

3. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etoposide is associated with hypotension as a common adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypotension while receiving this medication, such as dizziness, light-headedness, or low blood pressure readings. Prompt recognition and management of hypotension can help prevent complications and ensure the client's safety during treatment with etoposide.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

5. What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?

• A. Block stimulation of beta1 receptors
• B. Alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine
• C. Block stimulation of beta2 receptors
• D. Both A and C are correct

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol exerts its pharmacological action by blocking stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By doing so, it leads to decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as propranolol affects both types of beta receptors. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine.

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