a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the thera
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

2. A client has a prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate is to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position helps prevent this adverse effect by reducing the risk of reflux of the medication into the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day with a full glass of plain water. Choice B is incorrect because Alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because frequent headaches are not a common side effect of Alendronate.

3. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.

4. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.

5. What is pharmacodynamics?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions. It involves understanding how drugs interact with the body at the molecular level to produce their effects, including mechanisms of action, receptor binding, and downstream physiological responses. Choice A is incorrect because it describes pharmacopeia, which is a reference book containing standards for drugs. Choice C refers to efficacy, which is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Choice D describes pharmacokinetics, which focuses on the movement of drugs within the body.

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