Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Nausea
• C. Constipation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is tinnitus. Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, which may manifest as tinnitus. Tinnitus should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further hearing damage.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydroxychloroquine to treat Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Eye damage
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Eye damage.' Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe adverse effects on the eyes, such as retinopathy, which can lead to permanent visual impairment. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential adverse effect and report any changes in vision promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although nausea, hair loss, and drowsiness can occur with Hydroxychloroquine, they are not as severe or critical as the risk of eye damage.

3. A client has a new prescription for Pancrelipase for chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

• A. Take the medication with meals and snacks.
• B. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
• C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
• D. Expect the stool to be yellow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Pancrelipase is to take it with meals and snacks to aid in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. This helps optimize the effectiveness of the medication in managing chronic pancreatitis. Choice B is incorrect because Pancrelipase should not be chewed but swallowed whole. Choice C is incorrect as the medication should be taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because while Pancrelipase can cause stool changes, yellow stool is not an expected outcome.

4. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?

• A. To assess for renal impairment
• B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
• C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
• D. To assess for NSAID use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.

5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction.' Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, increases the risk for a myocardial infarction due to its effect on suppressing vasodilation, which can lead to this adverse cardiovascular event. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke, inhibit COX-1, or increase platelet aggregation. It's crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the increased risk for a myocardial infarction when taking Celecoxib and emphasize monitoring for signs of heart issues and the importance of seeking prompt medical attention if symptoms occur.

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