Nursing Elites

1. A client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit after attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, the nurse’s first priority is to:

• A. Establish a rapport to foster trust
• B. Place the client in full restraints
• C. Try to communicate with the client in writing
• D. Ensure safety by initiating suicide precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's highest priority should be to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. Given the history of a suicide attempt by taking a large number of acetaminophen tablets, there is a high risk of further self-harm. Placing the client in full restraints without assessing the situation properly may escalate anxiety and hinder therapeutic communication. Trying to communicate with the client in writing could be an option but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Establishing rapport is essential for building trust and therapeutic relationship, but safety concerns must be addressed first in this critical situation.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
• B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
• C. Managing ward or unit operations
• D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

4. The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the use of steroid therapy immediately if symptoms develop.
• B. Take diuretics as needed to treat the dependent edema in ankles.
• C. Increase the intake of dietary sodium every day to decrease fluid retention.
• D. Report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan for a client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome is to instruct the client to report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider. A decrease in weight could indicate worsening of the nephritic syndrome or dehydration, making it crucial information for the healthcare provider to assess the client's condition. Option A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy should be done under medical guidance rather than immediately if symptoms develop. Option B is incorrect because diuretics should not be taken without healthcare provider's guidance due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as increasing dietary sodium would exacerbate fluid retention, which is undesirable in nephritic syndrome.

5. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

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