a family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning which client should the nurse see first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a 2-year-old with reduced urine output (1 wet diaper in 24 hours) is at high risk for dehydration. Dehydration can occur rapidly in young children and can be life-threatening. The nurse should prioritize assessing and managing the dehydration of the 2-year-old. Choices A, C, and D, although they may also require attention, do not present the same level of immediate risk as a dehydrated 2-year-old.

2. One potential side effect associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stomach irritation and bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can lead to stomach irritation and bleeding by affecting the gastric mucosa. Stomatitis and esophagitis (choice B) are not commonly associated with NSAIDs. Impaired folate absorption (choice C) is not a typical side effect of NSAIDs. Increased potassium excretion (choice D) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs.

3. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.

4. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis. By removing the spleen, the excessive destruction of red blood cells is reduced, preventing hemolysis and improving anemia. Bone marrow transplant (A) is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Frequent blood transfusions (C) may temporarily address anemia but do not treat the underlying cause. Liver biopsy (D) is not indicated as a primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis.

5. A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client’s fluid status?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can indicate fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (choice A) is important but may not reflect total body fluid status accurately. Assessing vital signs (choice C) and checking the client's lungs for crackles (choice D) are important assessments but do not directly provide the most accurate monitoring of fluid status.

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