ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
- B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
- C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
- D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.
2. A client with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant appears depressed and states, 'I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Would you like information about advance directives?
- B. I will arrange for a psychiatrist to speak with you.
- C. Do you want to come off the transplant list?
- D. Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is expressing a fear of negative outcomes related to the transplant. By offering information about advance directives, the nurse allows the client to discuss concerns and preferences for end-of-life care. This response shows empathy, acknowledges the client's autonomy, and addresses the client's fears while providing support and information.
3. A client has been diagnosed with hypertension but does not take the antihypertensive medications because of a lack of symptoms. What response by the nurse is best?
- A. Do you have trouble affording your medications?
- B. Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms.
- C. You are lucky; most people get severe morning headaches.
- D. You need to take your medicine or you will get kidney failure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Most people with hypertension are asymptomatic, although a small percentage do have symptoms such as headache. The nurse should explain this to the client. Asking about paying for medications is not related because the client has already admitted nonadherence. Threatening the client with possible complications will not increase compliance.
4. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.
5. A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Give morphine IV.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy.
- C. Start an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's.
- D. Initiate cardiac monitoring.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.
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