ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A client with fibromyalgia requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Pregabalin
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Colchicine
- D. Codeine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pregabalin is commonly used to manage pain associated with fibromyalgia. It works by reducing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, not pain management. Colchicine is primarily used for gout treatment, and codeine, while an analgesic, is not typically the first-line choice for fibromyalgia pain due to its potential for side effects and misuse.
2. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?
- A. Cardiac Board Room
- B. Complete Bathroom
- C. Complete Bed Rest
- D. Complete Board Room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.
3. A client has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made?
- A. Coffee with creamer
- B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
- C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the pancreas. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice is a suitable option as it is low in fat. Coffee with creamer and lettuce with sliced avocados are not recommended for individuals with chronic pancreatitis due to their fat content. Choosing options high in fat can exacerbate symptoms and increase the workload on the pancreas, worsening the condition.
4. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:
- A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
- B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
- C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.
5. A client with vision loss is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse AVOID?
- A. Keep objects in the client's room in the same place
- B. Ensure there is high-wattage lighting in the client's room
- C. Approach the client from the side
- D. Allow extra time for the client to perform tasks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Approaching a client with vision loss from the side can startle them and may lead to accidents or discomfort. It is important to approach them from the front so they are aware of your presence. Keeping objects in the same place aids in familiarity and reduces the risk of falls. High-wattage lighting enhances visibility for the client. Allowing extra time for tasks accommodates the client's potential slower pace and ensures they can perform tasks safely.
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