Nursing Elites

1. A client with fibromyalgia requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Pregabalin
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Colchicine
• D. Codeine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pregabalin is commonly used to manage pain associated with fibromyalgia. It works by reducing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, not pain management. Colchicine is primarily used for gout treatment, and codeine, while an analgesic, is not typically the first-line choice for fibromyalgia pain due to its potential for side effects and misuse.

2. What do high-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate?

• A. Increased bowel motility
• B. Decreased bowel motility
• C. Normal bowel sounds
• D. Abdominal cramping

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate normal bowel sounds. Bowel sounds can vary in pitch, and high-pitched gurgles are considered normal and indicate the presence of active peristalsis in the intestines.

3. When preparing an in-service on malpractice issues in nursing, which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication
• B. Documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes of the client's medical record
• C. Administering potassium via IV bolus
• D. Placing a yellow bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering potassium via IV bolus is a high-risk procedure that requires careful attention and adherence to established protocols to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrest. Errors in administering IV medications, especially potent ones like potassium, can lead to severe harm to the patient and potential legal consequences for the healthcare provider. Therefore, including this example in the in-service on malpractice issues helps emphasize the importance of safe medication administration practices and the potential implications of errors.

4. Which of the following scenarios represents nursing malpractice?

• A. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and suffers cerebral damage due to anoxia.
• B. The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal cramping.
• C. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position; the patient slips and fractures his right humerus.
• D. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient, resulting in vomiting. This error is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing supervisor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering a drug to a patient with a known allergy, leading to severe harm such as an allergic reaction causing cerebral damage due to anoxia, constitutes nursing malpractice. In this scenario, the nurse failed to adhere to the standard of care by administering a medication that the patient was allergic to, resulting in serious harm, which is a clear example of malpractice in nursing.

5. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?

• A. Fowler’s position
• B. Side-lying
• C. Supine
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.

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