Nursing Elites

1. You’re performing an abdominal assessment on Brent who is 52 y.o. In which order do you proceed?

• A. Observation, percussion, palpation, auscultation
• B. Observation, auscultation, percussion, palpation
• C. Percussion, palpation, auscultation, observation
• D. Palpation, percussion, observation, auscultation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order for performing an abdominal assessment is observation, auscultation, percussion, and palpation.

2. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a hallmark sign of this disorder?

• A. Severe abdominal pain relieved by vomiting
• B. Severe abdominal pain that is unrelieved by vomiting
• C. Hypothermia
• D. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis is severe abdominal pain that is not relieved by vomiting. Nausea and vomiting are common presenting symptoms, with vomitus typically consisting of gastric and duodenal contents. Hypothermia is not a hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis. Fever, typically less than 38 degrees centigrade, is more common. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area is not a characteristic sign of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.

3. The client has had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. The nurse interprets that

• A. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.
• B. This is a normal, expected event.
• C. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
• D. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.

4. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Crohn’s disease?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diet
• C. Hereditary
• D. Lack of exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crohn's disease is believed to have a hereditary link, with genetic factors playing a significant role in its development.

5. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin (Indocin) is a Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, or small intestine. Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Digoxin is an antidysrhythmic. Propranolol (Inderal) is a B- adrenergic blocker. Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders.

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