Nursing Elites

1. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Both types of diabetes mellitus clients are prone to developing ketosis.
• B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes, which is genetic.
• C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia.
• D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food choices with the mother of an 8-month-old infant. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will give my child strained carrots and mashed egg yolks.
• B. I will give my child rice cereal and crackers.
• C. I will give my child pureed liver and strained pears.
• D. I will give my child applesauce and green peas.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'I will give my child rice cereal and crackers,' indicates a need for further teaching. Infants should not be given crackers at 8 months of age due to the risk of choking. Rice cereal is appropriate for infants, but it should be introduced carefully to avoid digestive issues. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate food choices for an 8-month-old infant, providing a variety of nutrients and textures suitable for their age and developmental stage.

3. A patient with renal insufficiency should limit the intake of which of the following nutrients?

• A. Phosphorus
• B. Potassium
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with renal insufficiency, impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus. High phosphorus levels can result in further complications such as bone and heart problems. Therefore, limiting the intake of phosphorus is crucial. Potassium and sodium restrictions may also be necessary in renal insufficiency, but the primary concern related to nutrients is phosphorus in this scenario. Calcium, while important for bone health, does not typically need to be restricted in renal insufficiency unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about nutrition to a group of clients. The healthcare provider should include that which of the following foods contains the highest level of thiamine per serving?

• A. 1 hard-boiled egg
• B. 1 cup dried pears
• C. 1 cup whole grain wheat flour
• D. 1 cup Brussels sprouts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Whole grain wheat flour contains the highest level of thiamine per serving compared to the other options provided. Thiamine, also known as Vitamin B1, is essential for energy metabolism. While eggs, dried pears, and Brussels sprouts are nutritious foods, they do not contain as high a level of thiamine as whole grain wheat flour. Therefore, the correct choice is whole grain wheat flour in this case.

5. Which of the following foods is the best source of omega-3 fatty acids?

• A. Salmon
• B. Chicken
• C. Spinach
• D. Eggs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Salmon is the correct answer as it is a rich source of omega-3 fatty acids, specifically EPA and DHA, which are known to be beneficial for heart health. Chicken, spinach, and eggs do not contain significant levels of omega-3 fatty acids compared to salmon. While eggs do contain some omega-3s, the amount is considerably lower than what is found in fatty fish like salmon.

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