ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation
1. You are doing discharge teaching with a patient who has hypophosphatemia during his time in hospital. The patient has a diet ordered that is high in phosphate. What foods would you teach this patient to include in his diet? Select all that do not apply
- A. Milk
- B. Beef
- C. Poultry
- D. Liver
Correct answer: Beef
Rationale:
2. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client with borderline personality disorder. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the plan of care?
- A. Set clear and consistent boundaries
- B. Encourage dependency on the healthcare professional
- C. Avoid discussing the client's feelings
- D. Use a firm, authoritative approach
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In caring for a client with borderline personality disorder, it is essential to set clear and consistent boundaries, use a firm, authoritative approach, and provide opportunities for the client to express feelings. Encouraging dependency can reinforce maladaptive behaviors, while avoiding discussing feelings can hinder therapeutic progress in addressing underlying issues. Building a sense of dependency may exacerbate the client's difficulties in developing autonomy and self-reliance, which are crucial for their progress and recovery. Therefore, encouraging dependency is not a recommended intervention in the plan of care for clients with borderline personality disorder.
3. A nurse assesses a client who has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. Production of pink sputum
- B. Tracheal deviation
- C. Pain at insertion site
- D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a mediastinal chest tube, the presence of pink sputum does not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, tracheal deviation could indicate a tension pneumothorax, sudden shortness of breath could signal tube issues or pneumothorax, and drainage exceeding 70 mL/hr might suggest hemorrhage. Disconnection at the Y site could lead to air entering the tubing, necessitating prompt attention.
4. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Nausea
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.
5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.
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