ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation
1. You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube placed upon admission has been on low intermittent suction ever since. Upon review of the mornings blood work, you notice that the patients potassium is below reference range. You should recognize that the patient may be at risk for what imbalance?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. Assess the client's dietary intake of foods high in potassium.
- B. Assess the client's neuromuscular status.
- C. Assess the client's fluid intake and output.
- D. Read food labels to determine sodium content.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to read food labels to determine sodium content. The client's sodium level is crucial to monitor as it is on the higher side (144 mEq/L), which can indicate hypernatremia. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and other complications. Assessing dietary sodium intake can help the nurse and client make necessary adjustments to prevent further sodium imbalances. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as the client's sodium level needs immediate attention to prevent potential complications.
3. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
- B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
- C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
- D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.
4. The nurse assessing skin turgor in an elderly patient should remember that:
- A. Overhydration causes the skin to tent.
- B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.
- C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
- D. Normal skin turgor is moist and boggy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Normal skin turgor is dry and firm. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration does not cause the skin to tent; it is dehydration that leads to tenting. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration, not overhydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice D is incorrect because normal skin turgor is dry and firm, not moist and boggy.
5. You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand, and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect?
- A. Hypophosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described, including tingling in the lips and fingers, intermittent spasms, and increased muscle tone, are indicative of tetany, which is a common manifestation of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to neuromuscular irritability, causing symptoms such as paresthesias and muscle spasms. Hypophosphatemia primarily affects the central nervous system, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia typically presents with hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Hyperkalemia can cause paresthesias and anxiety, but in this case, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of hypocalcemia.
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