Nursing Elites

1. You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?

• A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation
• B. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation
• D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO2 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the arterial blood gas results is metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the primary acid-base disturbance and the compensatory response seen in the given results.

2. You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly?

• A. Patients receiving TPN are at risk for hypercalcemia if calories are started too rapidly.
• B. Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively.
• C. Malnourished patients who receive fluids too rapidly are at risk for hypernatremia.
• D. Patients receiving TPN need a slow initiation of treatment in order to allow digestive enzymes to accumulate

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

3. You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand, and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect?

• A. Hypophosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described, including tingling in the lips and fingers, intermittent spasms, and increased muscle tone, are indicative of tetany, which is a common manifestation of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to neuromuscular irritability, causing symptoms such as paresthesias and muscle spasms. Hypophosphatemia primarily affects the central nervous system, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia typically presents with hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Hyperkalemia can cause paresthesias and anxiety, but in this case, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of hypocalcemia.

4. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

5. A female patient is discharged from the hospital after having an episode of heart failure. She's prescribed daily oral doses of digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Two days later, she tells her community health nurse that she feels weak and her heart 'flutters' frequently. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the patient to rest more often.
• B. Tell the patient to stop taking the digoxin and call the physician.
• C. Call the physician, report the symptoms, and request to draw a blood sample to determine the patient's potassium level.
• D. Tell the patient to avoid foods that contain caffeine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to call the physician, report the symptoms, and request to draw a blood sample to determine the patient's potassium level. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, and low potassium levels can lead to weakness and palpitations. Resting more often won't address the underlying issue of hypokalemia caused by furosemide. While digoxin can have side effects, it is not causing the symptoms described by the patient. Avoiding caffeine may be beneficial, but addressing the potassium level is more critical in this situation.

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