who can best describe the job to an applicant who can best describe the job to an applicant
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Practice B

1. Who is the best person to describe the job to an applicant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nursing manager is the most suitable person to describe the job to an applicant because they are directly involved in the day-to-day operations and requirements of the position. They have firsthand knowledge of the job responsibilities, expectations, and qualifications needed. Human resource managers are involved in recruitment but may not have the detailed operational knowledge that a nursing manager possesses. A previous employee may provide insights into the work environment but may not have a comprehensive understanding of the current job requirements. The chief operating officer oversees the organization's overall operations and strategy, so they may not have the specific details about the job to effectively describe it to an applicant.

2. The nurse who assesses the patient's peripheral IV site and notes edema around the insertion site will document which complication related to IV therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of non-vesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue. This can occur when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the vein's wall. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort, and coolness in the area of infiltration, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. Air emboli (Choice A) involves air entering the bloodstream. Phlebitis (Choice B) is inflammation of a vein. Fluid overload (Choice D) is an excessive volume of fluid in the circulatory system.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.

4. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

5. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.

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