ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?
- A. Urine dipstick for glucose
- B. Oral glucose tolerance test
- C. Fasting blood glucose level
- D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.
2. Fires are approached using the mnemonic RACE, in which, R stands for:
- A. Run
- B. Race
- C. Rescue
- D. Remove
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
3. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
- B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
- C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
- D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina is an indicator of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the formation of blood clots that could lead to angina episodes or more severe cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because troponin levels, heart rhythm, and blood pressure are not direct indicators of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events.
4. A medical-surgical nurse is concerned about the incidence of complications related to IV therapy, including bloodstream infection. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the management team to make the biggest impact on decreasing complications
- A. Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices
- B. . Require additional education for all nurses.
- C. Limit the use of peripheral venous access devices.
- D. Perform quality control testing on skin preparation products.
Correct answer: Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices
Rationale:
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
- B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
- C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
- D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.
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