Nursing Elites

1. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?

• A. Urine dipstick for glucose
• B. Oral glucose tolerance test
• C. Fasting blood glucose level
• D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.

2. When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the healthcare provider prescribes prednisone (Deltasone). The nurse will anticipate that the patient may

• A. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
• B. develop acute hypoglycemia while taking prednisone
• C. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
• D. have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking metformin develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause and is prescribed prednisone, the nurse should anticipate that the patient may require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. Prednisone can increase blood glucose levels by antagonizing the effects of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Therefore, the patient may need additional insulin to manage blood sugar levels effectively. The other options are incorrect as prednisone would not directly cause a need for a higher-calorie diet, acute hypoglycemia, or rashes caused by a metformin-prednisone interaction.

3. A nurse manager is using the nominal group technique to gather input from the staff on a new policy. What is the primary method of exchange in this technique?

• A. Oral presentations
• B. Email exchanges
• C. Written reports
• D. Group discussions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the nominal group technique, the primary method of exchange is through written reports. Participants independently generate ideas in writing, which are then shared and discussed within the group. This structured process allows for equal participation and prevents dominant individuals from influencing the group's outcome. Oral presentations (choice A) involve speaking rather than written communication, making it less suitable for the nominal group technique. Email exchanges (choice B) are also not the primary method as they lack the structured approach of the nominal group technique. Group discussions (choice D) do occur in the nominal group technique but are secondary to the initial written idea generation phase.

4. When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client, what action should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?

• A. Keep the feet close together.
• B. Use the back muscles for lifting.
• C. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting it.
• D. Bend at the waist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Keep the feet close together.' When lifting a heavy object such as a bedside cabinet, it is essential to maintain a wide base of support by keeping the feet close together. This provides better stability and reduces the risk of injury. Choice B is incorrect because using the back muscles for lifting can lead to back strain and injury; it is recommended to use the legs instead. Choice C is incorrect as standing close to the cabinet may cause the nurse to lose balance and strain the back. Choice D is incorrect because bending at the waist increases the risk of back injury. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to keep the feet close together to ensure stability and prevent self-injury.

5. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

• A. Flexible staffing
• B. Self-staffing
• C. Internal pools
• D. Management scheduling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

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