Nursing Elites

1. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?

• A. Urine dipstick for glucose
• B. Oral glucose tolerance test
• C. Fasting blood glucose level
• D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.

2. Which of the following can cause negative effects on decision making among groups?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Groupthink
• C. Risky shift
• D. Dialectical inquiry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Groupthink. Groupthink is a negative phenomenon occurring in highly cohesive, isolated groups where members tend to think alike, which hinders critical thinking and can lead to poor decision-making. Rationalization refers to justifying or explaining behaviors or decisions in a logical manner. Risky shift is a phenomenon in groups where decisions become riskier or more extreme than individual members would make on their own. Dialectical inquiry is a technique used to counteract groupthink by encouraging debate and presenting opposing viewpoints to arrive at more thoughtful decisions.

3. The process by which registered nurses assess and judge the performance of peers against some predetermined standard is called:

• A. Group evaluation.
• B. Peer review.
• C. Forced distribution evaluation.
• D. Essay evaluation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peer review. Peer review is a process in which professional peers assess and judge the performance of their colleagues against predetermined standards. Essay evaluations involve describing an employee's performance through a detailed written narrative. Forced distribution evaluation is a method where employees are rated based on a fixed distribution, similar to grading on a curve. Group evaluation, on the other hand, involves managers comparing individual and group performance against organizational standards.

4. The nurse is taking a health history from a 29-year-old pregnant patient at the first prenatal visit. The patient reports no personal history of diabetes but has a parent who is diabetic. Which action will the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Teach the patient about administering regular insulin.
• B. Schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level.
• C. Discuss an oral glucose tolerance test for the twenty-fourth week of pregnancy.
• D. Provide teaching about an increased risk for fetal problems with gestational diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Given the family history of diabetes, the initial action the nurse should take is to schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level. This will help in assessing if the patient has developed gestational diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because teaching about administering regular insulin is premature without confirming the diagnosis. Choice C is incorrect as an oral glucose tolerance test is typically done earlier in pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as discussing fetal problems related to gestational diabetes should come after a confirmed diagnosis.

5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

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