Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following medications is most effective for treating the pain associated with irritable bowel disease?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Opiates
• C. Steroids
• D. Stool softeners

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is often the first line of treatment for pain associated with irritable bowel disease due to its safety profile.

2. Jerod is experiencing an acute episode of ulcerative colitis. What is the priority for this patient?

• A. Replace lost fluid and sodium.
• B. Monitor for increased serum glucose levels from steroid therapy.
• C. Restrict dietary intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. Note any change in the color and consistency of stools.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to replace lost fluid and sodium. During an acute episode of ulcerative colitis, the priority is to manage the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance. This is crucial due to the potential for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances resulting from diarrhea and inflammation in the colon. Monitoring serum glucose levels (Choice B) may be important for patients on steroid therapy, but in this scenario, fluid and electrolyte balance take precedence. Restricting dietary intake of foods high in potassium (Choice C) is not a priority in the acute phase of ulcerative colitis. While noting changes in stool color and consistency (Choice D) is important for assessing the patient's gastrointestinal status, it is not the priority when managing acute ulcerative colitis.

3. Which of the following factors should be the main focus of nursing management for a client hospitalized for cholecystitis?

• A. Administration of antibiotics
• B. Assessment for complications
• C. Preparation for lithotripsy
• D. Preparation for surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessment for complications should be the main focus of nursing management for a client hospitalized for cholecystitis.

4. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

5. A nurse is providing the client with biliary obstruction a simple overview of the anatomy of the liver and gallbladder. The nurse tells the client that normally the liver stores bile in the gallbladder, which is connected to the liver by the?

• A. Liver canaliculi
• B. Common bile duct
• C. Cystic duct
• D. Right hepatic duct.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The gallbladder receives bile from the liver through the cystic duct. The liver collects bile in the canaliculi. Bile then flows into the common hepatic duct. From the common hepatic duct, the bile can be stored in the gallbladder through the cystic duct. Otherwise, the bile can flow directly into the duodenum by way of the common bile duct.

Similar Questions