Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following scenarios represents nursing malpractice?

• A. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and suffers cerebral damage due to anoxia.
• B. The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal cramping.
• C. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position; the patient slips and fractures his right humerus.
• D. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient, resulting in vomiting. This error is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing supervisor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering a drug to a patient with a known allergy, leading to severe harm such as an allergic reaction causing cerebral damage due to anoxia, constitutes nursing malpractice. In this scenario, the nurse failed to adhere to the standard of care by administering a medication that the patient was allergic to, resulting in serious harm, which is a clear example of malpractice in nursing.

2. A client is to receive thrombolytic therapy. Which of the following factors should be recognized as a contraindication to the therapy?

• A. Hip arthroplasty 2 weeks ago
• B. Elevated sedimentation rate
• C. Incident of exercise-induced asthma 1 week ago
• D. Elevated platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots. Hip arthroplasty (joint replacement surgery) performed recently is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Elevated sedimentation rate, exercise-induced asthma, and elevated platelet count are not contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.

3. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

4. A client with depression reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Pseudoparkinsonism
• D. Acute dystonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When St. John's wort, an herbal supplement, is taken with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a serious condition that can occur when there is an excess of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, rapid heart rate, increased body temperature, and more. Monitoring for serotonin syndrome is crucial when these substances are taken together to prevent any potential harm to the client.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

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