ATI RN
ATI Leadership Practice A
1. Which of the following is a trait that was found to be common among leaders in trait theory?
- A. Communication of duties assigned
- B. Adaptability and changing priorities
- C. Order giving and decision making for a group
- D. Communication of goal direction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Communication of goal direction.' Trait theory suggests that effective leaders possess certain traits, one of which is the ability to clearly communicate the direction and goals of the group. This trait helps in aligning the efforts of the team towards a common objective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while communication, adaptability, decision-making, and order giving are important skills for leaders, the specific trait commonly associated with leaders in trait theory is the ability to communicate the direction and goals.
2. What is the primary focus of the Triple Aim in healthcare?
- A. Improving patient experience
- B. Reducing healthcare costs
- C. Improving population health
- D. Ensuring regulatory compliance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary focus of the Triple Aim in healthcare is indeed improving patient experience. While reducing healthcare costs and improving population health are important components of the Triple Aim framework, the primary goal is to enhance the overall experience of patients. Ensuring regulatory compliance, although important in healthcare, is not one of the primary focuses of the Triple Aim.
3. A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the healthcare provider should the nurse take first?
- A. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
- B. Administer IV potassium supplements
- C. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels
- D. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial priority is to assess for any cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalances. Since the patient has a low serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L, placing the patient on a cardiac monitor is crucial to monitor for any potential cardiac complications. Administering IV potassium supplements (Choice B) may be needed, but it is not the first action to take. Obtaining urine glucose and ketone levels (Choice C) and starting an insulin infusion (Choice D) are important interventions in managing DKA, but ensuring patient safety by monitoring for arrhythmias takes precedence.
4. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
- A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
- B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
- C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
- D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
5. What are the final stages of the conflict process?
- A. Antecedent conditions
- B. Perceived and felt conflict
- C. Suppression and resolution
- D. Conflict behavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.
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