ATI RN
ATI Leadership Practice A
1. When a client experiences a major incident, what is the time frame for reporting the incident?
- A. 24 hours.
- B. 36 hours.
- C. 48 hours.
- D. 72 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: '24 hours.' It is crucial to report a major incident within 24 hours of its occurrence to ensure timely and accurate documentation. Reporting incidents promptly allows for a swift response and investigation to prevent future occurrences. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended time frame for reporting a major incident, which is 24 hours.
2. Which of the following best describes decertification?
- A. Encourage union affiliation
- B. Change union affiliation
- C. Reward union affiliation
- D. Empower union affiliation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Decertification is the process of removing or changing union affiliation. Choosing option B, 'Change union affiliation,' correctly reflects this definition. Option A, 'Encourage union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification is not about promoting union membership but rather altering it. Option C, 'Reward union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification does not involve rewarding union membership. Option D, 'Empower union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification does not empower union membership but rather modifies or eliminates it.
3. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?
- A. A patient fall with no injury
- B. A medication error that results in no harm
- C. A patient suicide while in a healthcare facility
- D. A near miss incident
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, a patient suicide while in a healthcare facility. A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury. Choices A, B, and D do not meet the criteria for sentinel events as described by The Joint Commission, as they do not involve death or serious harm to the patient.
4. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA)?
- A. Identify the person responsible for an error
- B. Determine who should be disciplined
- C. Discover the underlying causes of an error
- D. Evaluate the effectiveness of a new policy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Discover the underlying causes of an error.' Root cause analysis (RCA) focuses on identifying the fundamental reason(s) that led to an error or problem rather than placing blame on individuals. Choice A and B are incorrect as RCA is not about pinpointing a specific person to blame or determining disciplinary actions. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of RCA is not to evaluate policy effectiveness but to uncover the root causes of issues for effective problem-solving.
5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:
- A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
- B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
- C. It is mandated by law.
- D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.
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