ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. Which of the following is a recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting?
- A. Encourage the client to express their feelings through physical activity
- B. Avoid making eye contact to prevent escalation
- C. Use pharmacological interventions immediately
- D. Maintain eye contact, offer clear choices, and set boundaries
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting is to maintain eye contact, offer clear choices, and set boundaries. This approach can help de-escalate the situation by establishing communication and structure. Choice A is incorrect as encouraging physical activity may not be suitable during an aggressive episode. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding eye contact can hinder communication and resolution. Choice C is also incorrect as pharmacological interventions should not be the immediate go-to method for managing aggression unless absolutely necessary.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?
- A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
- B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
- D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.
3. How can a healthcare professional help prevent pressure ulcers in an immobile patient?
- A. Ensuring proper nutrition and hydration
- B. Using moisture barriers to protect the skin
- C. Turning the patient every 2 hours to prevent pressure
- D. Providing special mattresses or padding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring proper nutrition and hydration is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in immobile patients. Adequate nutrition supports tissue health and repair, while hydration helps maintain skin elasticity. While turning the patient every 2 hours is important to prevent pressure injuries, it is not the primary way to address prevention. Using moisture barriers and providing special mattresses or padding are essential components of pressure ulcer prevention, but they are not as fundamental as ensuring proper nutrition and hydration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an ethical conflict about the care she is receiving. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult about resolving the dilemma?
- A. Hospital ethics committee
- B. Quality improvement committee
- C. Chaplain
- D. Director of nursing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the hospital ethics committee. This committee is specifically designed to address and resolve ethical conflicts in patient care. It comprises professionals from various disciplines who can provide guidance and support in navigating ethical dilemmas. Choice B, the quality improvement committee, focuses on enhancing the quality of care provided but may not be equipped to handle ethical conflicts. Choice C, the chaplain, offers spiritual and emotional support but may not have the expertise to resolve ethical dilemmas. Choice D, the director of nursing, is responsible for nursing operations and may not be the appropriate resource for addressing ethical conflicts.
5. Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia and hypotension
- B. Tremors and increased blood pressure
- C. Severe muscle weakness and fatigue
- D. Severe hallucinations and delusions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.
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