which of the following is a positive benefit of conflict within an organization
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. Which of the following is a positive benefit of conflict within an organization?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Conflict within an organization can have positive outcomes as it helps individuals recognize legitimate differences, fostering diversity of thought and perspectives. This recognition can serve as a motivator for individuals to enhance their performance in order to address and adapt to these differences effectively, ultimately leading to improved organizational outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because conflict should not lead to compromising core values and beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as conflict typically leads to competition rather than collaboration. Choice D is incorrect because conflict does not always result in a win-win resolution; in reality, conflicts often involve compromise and trade-offs rather than everyone winning.

2. Lippitt's phases of change are important factors in the change process. The phase that involves key people in data collection is known as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Diagnose the problem.' In Lippitt's phases of change, the first step is to diagnose the problem, which involves key people in data collection and problem-solving. This step is crucial as it helps identify the root causes of the issues that need to be addressed. Assessing the motivation (A) comes later in the change process once the problem has been diagnosed. Choosing a change agent (B) and maintaining the change (D) are also important steps in the change process but do not specifically involve key people in data collection as in the diagnosis phase.

3. What is a benefit of effective delegation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It empowers staff to make decisions.' Effective delegation involves entrusting tasks and decisions to staff, which not only lightens the manager's load but also empowers employees, enhancing their skills and confidence. Choice A is incorrect because effective delegation should reduce the manager's workload by distributing tasks appropriately. Choice B is incorrect as effective delegation involves empowering staff to make decisions rather than the manager making all decisions. Choice D is incorrect as effective delegation actually increases staff involvement by giving them more responsibilities and decision-making power.

4. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

5. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse advocate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Advocate for patient needs.' A nurse advocate's primary role is to stand up for the patient's rights and ensure their needs are met. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as while nurses do provide direct patient care, the specific role of a nurse advocate goes beyond that. Choice C, 'Manage nursing staff,' is incorrect as this pertains to a nurse manager's role, not a nurse advocate. Choice D, 'Ensure policy adherence,' is also incorrect as this reflects more of a quality assurance or compliance role, rather than the advocacy role of a nurse advocate.

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